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Exam Code: HP2-E17
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essential of HP Enterprise Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is a key feature of HP Modular Cooling System? A. It comes in multiple rack sizes
B. It can be split into individual servers.
C. It supports over 30kW load in one rack
D. It provides heating in over-cooled racks.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tape technologies provide read compatibility for two previous generations? (Select two.)
A. AIT
B. SLR
C. LTO
D. SDLT
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which networking technology can conserve bandwidth, improve security, and enhance manageability
within a multiple network segment environment?
A. VLAN
B. WLAN
C. Trunking
D. PortChannel
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature would a customer use to activate or deactivate processors as required by their workload
without 30-day licenses?
A. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B. Global Instant Capacity (GiCAP)
C. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
D. Pay-Per-Use CPU Activation (PPU)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which ProLiant DL series iLO 2 features require an Advanced Pack licence? (Select two) A. SSH
B. Virtual Media
C. Virtual Power Button
D. Power Regulator for ProLiant
E. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 What are benefits of implementing a SAN storage solution? (Select two.) A. online expansion
B. static storage allocation
C. centralized management
D. decentralized management access
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which legacy UNIX platform can be directly migrated to the EPIC. based processor platform by
replacing the cell board?
A. Alpha
B. PA. RISC
C. PowerPC
D. UltraSPARC
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer needs to solve processing bottlenecks in an HP Integrity mid-range server during peak
times. They are looking for a flexible demand-based program that will allow them turn CPUs on or off as
needed with a simple renew structure.
Which program should you introduce? A. instant-On
B. Instant-Off
C. Temporary iCAP
D. Capacity on Request
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the HP UPS Six Port Option card? A. It connects more than one server to a UPS
B. It manages the connected HP-UX servers.
C. It connects more servers than load segments.
D. It prioritizes shutdowns even if the network is down
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which disk array family supports both FICON and ESCON connectivity?
A. XP
B. EVA
C. VLS
D. MSA
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-S26
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are adding a second Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Small Form Factor (SFF) drive cage to a ProLiant
ML350 G6 Server. The server has a Smart Array 410i Controller. The customer has ordered the cage,
cables and drives. Why are you unable to complete this task?
A. The second drive cage installation requires a SAS expander board.
B. The second drive cage installation requires all eight inch SAS cables.
C. The SA410i does not support this configuration.
D. The SA410i must have a 512MB with BBWC option installed.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which utility is used to create an output file containing information about the disk controller order on a
reference server that can be used for replication?
A. ORCA
B. CONREP
C. ADU
D. CPQDISK
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer wants you to create a third LUN on a connected MSA2000. After you do this, what must you
do to make it visible to the host within the Windows operating system? (Select two.)
A. Enable BIOS on the first and (if available) second fc-adapter.
B. Present the LUN with the WWN number of the FC card installed in the server.
C. Boot the connected server from SmartStart 8.x, use Array Configuration Utility, and allow the host to
access the new LUN.
D. Restart your server or select Disk Management, right-click, and select Rescan Disk.
E. Add the new LUN-WWN to zoning of the fc-fabric.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What does an HP SIM CMS running on Windows use to record various error, warning, and informational
events that occur during runtime?
A. Windows Event Log
B. HP SIM Select Options ? Events
C. System Management Homepage
D. CPQSetup.log
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which changes to clustering are included in Windows Server 2008? (Select two.)
A. Clusters are x64-based and now support up to 32 nodes.
B. Cluster nodes can have their IP addresses assigned by DHCP.
C. Geographically dispersed clusters cannot span subnets.
D. Failover clusters are built around a more resilient and customizable quorum model.
E. GUID partition table (GPT) disks are not supported.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which services do you need installed to use the HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)
Deployment Server Web Console? (Select two.)
A. ASP.NET.
B. WAIK 2.1
C. Framework.net 2.0
D. Framework.net 1.1
E. IIS
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which tool is best suited to replicate the RBSU settings across multiple ProLiant DL300 Series servers?
A. HP SIM
B. RDU
C. ACU
D. CONREP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which agent is used for HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP) on Windows Server 2008?
A. DAClient
B. AClient
C. DAgent
D. ADLAgent
Answer: C

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NO.9 How does the standard warranty on a ProLiant DL165 Server differ from that of a ProLiant DL320
Server?
A. There is no difference in warranty terms between the DL165 and DL320.
B. No onsite support for DL165; 3 years onsite support for the DL320
C. 3 years parts and labor for the DL165; 1 year parts and labor for the DL320
D. 1 year parts and labor for the DL165; 3 years parts and onsite labor for the DL320
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about SAN/Fabric Switch Care Pack service level support?
A. It need not be uplifted to match existing storage or server service level.
B. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by separate Care
Packs.
C. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by the Care Pack.
D. It does not cover the Ethernet interconnect and virtual connect modules.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y24
Exam Name: HP (Securing HP ProCurve Networks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. The DHCP Spoofing and
Dynamic ARP Protection features correspond to which layer?
A. infrastructure protection
B. network immunity protection
C. device-to-device authentication
D. network access control
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is correct about the threat mitigation capabilities of ProCurve NIM?
A. NIM can apply a threat mitigation action to supported infrastructure devices.
B. NIM can mitigate threats detected by NBAD, but must only log other threats.
C. NIM can detect threats but relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to mitigate them.
D. NIM can mitigate threats from wired offenders, but not wireless offenders.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is correct about the ProCurve ProActive Defense strategy?
A. It operates at a safe distance from the points of attack and the network resources being attacked.
B. It achieves better-performing, more scalable networks by using high capacity core resources.
C. It enforces access and policy decisions where users and applications connect to the network.
D. It creates a cost-effective management framework by using core infrastructure protection measures.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which security layer does an
unauthorized VLAN correspond to?
A. network access control
B. network immunity protection
C. control protocol detection
D. device-to-device authentication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which role does the authenticator play in the 802.1X authentication process?
A. It encapsulates an EAP-access-request inside of a RADIUS response-identity packet and forwards it
for validation.
B. It creates and sends an access-challenge message to the supplicant to request client credentials.
C. It provides two-way translation between EAP messages and RADIUS messages.
D. It validates the EAP-identity-request and responds with either an accept or reject message.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action?
A. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
B. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which image in the exhibit shows an invalid NIM + IDS deployment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which infrastructure defense capabilities are provided by the ProCurve ProActive Defense network
security solution? (Select two.)
A. vulnerability assessment database
B. connection rate filtering
C. spoofing protection of DHCP traffic
D. managed security services
E. phishing protection
Answer: BC

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NO.9 What is the default state of a Port Access Entity configured for IEEE 802.1X port-access
authentication?
A. disabled
B. authorized
C. restricted
D. idle
E. unauthorized
Answer: E

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which alert shown in the exhibit is the least sensitive?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.5 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.7 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.10 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: Hp2-H05
Exam Name: HP (Design & Implementation of HP Thin Client Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which thin client operating systems should you recommend to a customer who requires
high software extensibility? (Select two)
A. HP ThinPro
B. MS Windows XPe
C. HP ThinConnect
D. HP ThinPro Plus
E. MS Windows CE
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which HP thin client has stateless mode capability?
A. t5545 (HP ThinPro)
B. t5540 (MS Windows CE)
C. t5730 (MS Windows XPe)
D. t5145 (HP ThinConnect)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which models belong to the Flexible product line in HP thin client portfolio (Select two)
A. 6720t
B. t5730
C. t5145
D. t5630
E. t5540
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Your customer needs to connect to and communicate with applications on mainframes and
midrange systems running proprietary operating systems, UNIX, and Linux.
Which HP thin client operating systems provide this ability through their support of the
Neoware TeemTalk terminal emulation? (Select three)
A. HP-UX 11i
B. HP ThinPro
C. MS Windows Vista
D. HP ThinConnect
E. MS Windows CE
F. Windows XPe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.5 Name the tool that:
-supports HP thin clients
-is included with every HP thin client
-does not require a license
-provides easy-to-use, scalable image deployment and recovery for SMB environments
A. HP ThinState
B. HP Image manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
D. HP Client Automation (HPCA)
Answer: A

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NO.6 A medium-sized bank has upgraded to the most recent Citrix XenApp environment. The
have asked you to provide thin client access devices. In addition to standard ICA access,
they need support for their local printers and would like to use XenApp's Web Interface 5.0
feature.
Which HP thin client models should you suggest as the best cost-effective option for them?
(Select two)
A. 2533t
B. 6720t
C. t5145
D. t5540
E. t5630
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What is the mail-in warranty turnaround time for HP thin clients sent to HP for repair?
A. 8 hours
B. 16 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which remote protocol has a client implementation on all major operating systems?
A. HP RGS
B. Citrix ICA
C. MS RDP
D. X Display Manager Control Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which protocols does HP support to access HP blade workstations remotely (Select two)
A. ICA
B. VNC
C. RDC
D. RGS
E. RDP
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 Your customer requires the lowest-cost thin client solution with only basic connectivity,
integrated connection brokers, no browser or terminal emulation support, and the most
essential peripheral support.
Which thin client operating system should you recommend?
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows CE
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which HP thin client operating system includes the features listed below?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
Basic connectivity: ICA/RDP/X-term
Software extensibility: Modest - some modules can be download from HP
Peripheral support: Wide
Local browser: Firefox
Terminal emulation: TeemTalk
A. HP ThinPro
B. HP ThinConnect
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MX Windows CE
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the role of a connection broker?
A. provides encryption between client and resources
B. determines resource type allocation based on user identity
C. manages golden images and their distribution to compute resources
D. provides a connection between the server and the computer resources
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to configure your HP thin clients to boot from the network/ATA Flash/USB. What is the
correct command to use?
A. bootorder.exe -wNH
B. bootorder.exe -wHU
C. bootorder.exe -oNHU
D. bootorder.exe -oUNH
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions are recognized by HP (Select two)
A. HP Blade PC
B. VmWare View
C. Citrix XenApp
D. HP Image Manager
E. Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 Which operation system of HP thin clients fully implements the features of the HP Session
Allocation Manager (SAM) broker?
A. HP ThinConnect
B. MS Windows CE
C. MS Windows XPe
D. MS Windows Vista
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which features are exclusively available with the Windows Xpe operating system and not with the
other operating systems supported on the HP thin clients? (Select two)
A. media player
B. Smart Card support
C. Enhanced Write Filter (EWF)
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
E. locked-down configuration and accounts
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Which HP Remote Client Solution is best for a task-oriented user?
A. HP Blade Workstation
B. Server Based Computing
C. HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
D. Hp Blade PC
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are the characteristic of a Knowledge Worker user group (Select two)
A. richer graphical applications
B. many simultaneous user logins
C. multiple display support requirements
D. multiple business or productivity applications open simultaneously
E. fewer application types
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 To which product line classification in HP thin client portfolio does the HP 2533t model
belong?
A. Mobile
B. Flexible
C. Essential
D. Mainstream
Answer: A

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NO.20 The HP Compaq Thin Client Boot Order Change Tool enables you to change the boot order of a
thin client remotely. What is the correct Linux command to set the boot order as USB/
Flash/Network?
A. ./hpbootorder -uhn
B. ./hpbootorder -oufn
C. hpbootorder.exe -uhn
D. hpbootorder.exe -oufn
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T16
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard Architecture and Technology)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which server filters outgoing network requests?
A. FTP
B. Proxy
C. DNS
D. WINS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command can be used to verify connectivity to a client machine?
A. ping
B. nslookup
C. nbstat
D. ipconfig
Answer: A

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NO.3 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system.? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.4 Which port type does a host server use when connected to an FC-SAN?
A. N_Port
B. E_Port
C. G_Port
D. F_Port
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Network Operating System (NOS) filesystem allows you to set security on invididual files?
A. FAT32
B. FAT
C. NTFS
D. CDFS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your RAID 5 array on a Smart Array sustains a drive failure. A host spare replaces the failed drive
and rebuilds successfully. After replacing the failed drive with a new drive, what happens next?
A. The spare drive replicates its data to the new drive and both work as a mirror until you evict the spare
drive.
B. The new drive stays offline until you assign it to the array, at which point it automatically takes the place
of the spare drive.
C. The new drive re-assumes its place in the RAID set and after data rebuild is complete, the drive that
was the spare once again becomes a hot spare drive.
D. The new drive becomes a spare drive and you must go to the ACU to remove the old spare drive and
then re-add the new drive to the array.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the virtual machine instance commonly called?
A. guest
B. host
C. partition
D. hypervisor
Answer: A

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NO.8 Into which range do reserved TCP/IP server ports generally fall?
A. 0-1023
B. 1-512
C. 21-80
D. 1024-8080
Answer: A

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NO.9 What happens when you install a 66Mhz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot?
A. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode.
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 66MHz in 32-bit mode.
C. All 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards.
D. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is running a single-threaded application and experiences performance problems connected
with the processor subsystem. How would you solve this issue?
A. Change processor affinity to enable splitting single threads into multiple threads
B. Add additional processors
C. Upgrade the processor with a higher frequency processor.
D. Replace the processor with a higher stepping processor
E. Upgrade the processor with a multi-core processor.
F. Enable the integrated memory controller of the process at the BIOS.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statements are true about AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three)
A. Requests for memory access are handle by the Northbridge ASIC.
B. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors.
C. Each processor has its own memory controller
D. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors.
E. Requests for memory access are handle directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport link.
F. Communications between CPU and memory is handle through the QuickPath Interconnect.
Answer: BCE

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NO.12 What does a system require to achieve PCI Hot Plug capability? (Select three)
A. hot-plug fans
B. hog-plug operating systems
C. hot-plug adapter drivers
D. hot-plug memory
E. hot-plug system tray
F. hot-plug platform
Answer: BCF

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NO.13 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.14 Which major challenges of I/O virtualization do Virtual Machine Managers need to address? (Select
two)
A. WWN virtualization
B. DMA virtualization
C. IRQ virtualization
D. port virtualization
E. MAC virtualization
Answer: AE

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NO.15 Which technology should you implement for disk redundancy?
A. SATA
B. NTFS
C. RAID
D. SCSI
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Network Operating System (NOS) security practices are commonly used when planning server
management? (Select three)
A. disable FTP and SSH
B. install hardware and software firewalls
C. disable unused TCP/IP service ports
D. use easy to remember password
E. enforce regular password changes
Answer: BCE

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NO.17 What can you do to optimize memory performance?
A. Enable Advanced Memory Buffer.
B. Rearrange existing memory to allow interleaving.
C. Implement memory caching
D. Configure processor interleaving.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. Which statements are
true about these processors? (Select two)
A. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed.
B. AMD Opteron processors are optimized for virtualization and AMD-V technology.
C. An Intel Xeon processor uses HyperTransport link to access its memory.
D. Intel Xeon processors are optimized for virtualization with Intel VT technology.
E. An AMD Opteron processors uses QuickPath Interconnect to access its memory.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Why should server firmware be updated to the most recent version? (Select two)
A. to maintain a valid warranty
B. to fix problems from earlier versions
C. to support new features
D. to refresh changes that a user has edited in the existing firmware
E. to support leagcy features
Answer: BC

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NO.20 How does single-mode fiber compare with multimode fiber?
A. Single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
B. Multimode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
C. Multimode fiber is more often used for long-distance telecommunications.
D. Single-mode fiber has higher loss and lower bandwidth.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-023
Exam Name: HP (HP Color Laserjet 2820-2840 Aio Datasheet)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What program allows customers to annotate documents with text and graphics?
A. HP Director
B. HP Document Viewer
C. HP Image Zone
D. Readiris Pro
Answer: B

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NO.2 What should display on the control panel before entering the menu to print a secondary service report?
A. Enter
B. Print
C. Service reports
D. Ready
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why would a fax Receive-to-PC mode option be unavailable on an HP Color LaserJet 2840 AiO?
A. The product is installed as a network device.
B. The product was installed hardware first, instead of software first.
C. Newer HP all-in-one products do not have this option.
D. When installing the software, select the Custom Install option.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What page contains four columns of horizontal lines, with each column responding to one of the print
cartridge colors?
A. Supplies Status
B. engine test
C. half self-test
D. Demo
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer moved an image file from the PC to the memory card. However, the customer cannot open
the file now located on the card. What is your first step in testing the card?
A. Verify that the memory card can be used to obtain the file.
B. Verify that the correct side of the card was inserted into the reader.
C. Reseat the memory card by removing and reinserting.
D. Verify that the card has enough memory for the file.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-042
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 5200 Series Printers Service and Support)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following are customer self-repair parts? Select THREE.
A. tray 1 pickup roller
B. formatter
C. memory DIMMs
D. main fan duct
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 The HP LaserJet 5200L comes with which two of the following? Select TWO.
A. 500-sheet input tray
B. one open DIMM slot
C. duplex unit
D. hi-speed USB 2.0 port
Answer: B

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NO.3 When removing/replacing the assembly, for which internal assembly must you first remove the cartridge
door unit?
A. control panel assembly
B. laser/scanner assembly
C. face down delivery unit
D. cassette-paper pickup unit
Answer: B

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NO.4 What printer drivers are included on the inbox CD for the HP LaserJet 5200 series printer.? Select
THREE.
A. Linux
B. PCL 5e
C. PostScript 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 How many motors do HP LaserJet 5200 series printers contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y23
Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP ProCurve Products )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You must configure an IP interface for VLAN 22 on an HP ProCurve switch. Besides the IP address,
which parameter is required?
A.subnet mask
B.DNS server
C.default gateway
D.port members
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory
default settings?
ProCurveSwitch# exit
A.All switch ports are enabled.
B.The user is logged out of the CLI.
C.The privilege level moves from Manager to Operator.
D.The CLI displays an authentication prompt.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What can be used as a destination when backing up the configuration on an HP ProCurve 3500yl
switch? (Select two.)
A.TFTP server
B.compact flash
C.neighboring switch
D.USB flash drive
E.FTP server
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Besides the CLI, which configuration interface enables an administrator to configure a user name for
access to the Manager privilege level on an HP ProCurve switch?
A.menu interface
B.web interface
C.setup interface
D.Management Interface Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.5 You must configure an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch for installation in a network that uses RSTP to form
a single-instance Spanning Tree. What must you do to ensure that the 3500yl will participate in this
Spanning Tree?
A.Enter spanning-tree in the global configuration context.
B.Enter spanning-tree rstp in the configuration context for every VLAN the switch shares with another
switch.
C.Enter spanning-tree protocol-version rstp in the Spanning Tree configuration context.
D.Enter spanning-tree autodetect in the configuration context of every port where the switch will hear
Spanning Tree BPDUs.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You must define a hostname on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A.interface
B.global configuration
C.manager
D.operator
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch?
5406zl# configure terminal
A.The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B.The CLI provides an interface for configuring persistent terminal variables such as line length.
C.The CLI displays user input in the terminal.
D.The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which privilege level is indicated by the following prompt at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch?
3500yl-24G>
A.operator
B.interface
C.global configuration
D.manager
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch?
(Select three.)
3500yl-24G#
A.enable IP routing
B.update switch software
C.disable ports
D.erase startup configuration
E.define management passwords
F.restart the switch
G.assign IP address to VLAN interface
Answer: BDF

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NO.10 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which CLI context will enable you to
perform this task?
A.router
B.manager
C.CLI passthrough
D.VLAN
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which ProLiant Essentials Foundation Pack CD can run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)?
A. Diagnostic CD
B. SmartStart CD
C. Management CD
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: B

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NO.2 What happens if a server blade is moved from an enclosure managed by Virtual Connect to an
enclosure that is not managed by Virtual Connect?
A. MAC address and WWNs must be changed manually for the server blade.
B. Local MAC addresses are automatically returned to the original factory defaults.
C. After boot, server blades will gain access to the network as soon as the server and interconnect
modules are ready.
D. The configuration of the server blade is automatically updated before it is allowed to power on
and connect to the network.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP cooling technology uses power management to control CPU power state automatically
based on application demand?
A. Active Cool fans
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. Modular Cooling System
D. ProLiant Power Regulator
Answer: D

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NO.4 How many BL30p servers can be supported by a fully populated 1U p-Class power enclosure?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.5 You installed new server blades into an HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure.
How does the enclosure indicate if a server blade is not installed correctly?
A. The HPBladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnect to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which c-Class BL series server blade supports 4 internal SAS drives?
A. BL460c
B. BL480c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which GUI utility diagnoses system bottlenecks and is easily integrated with HP Systems Insight
Manager?
A. HP Control Tower for HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant Essentials Workload Management Pack
C. HPProLiant Essentials Performance Management Pack
D. HPProLiant Essentials Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.8 Some servers within a customer data center turn off because of overheating. You have an air
conditioning specification and want to compare this information with the amount of heat generated
by the servers.
Which HP tool provides this information?
A. Product Bulletin
B. Power Calculator
C. Data Center Sizer
D. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which HP StorageWorks arrays can be used with the HP BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. MSA 20
B. MSA 30
C. MSA 500
D. MSA 1000
E. MSA 1500cs
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 Which online tool can be utilized to plan the power requirements for an HP Integrity BL860c
Blade?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP Knowledge Base
C. HPBladeSystem Sizer
D. HP Power Analysis & Planner
Answer: C

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NO.11 If you suspect the hard drive or hard drive subsystem may be at fault in a system, which HP tools
can isolate the source of the problem? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which HP remote application continuously monitors hardware and sends an alert to HP when an
error occurs?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. Open Service Event Manager
C. Instant SupportEnterprise Edition
D. Integrated Management Log Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your customer has eight BL20p G3 servers all with Fibre Channel mezzanine cards. They also
have a GbE2 switch installed with a Brocade switch attached.
None of their servers can access external shared storage (MSA1500cs). What should you verify
first?
A. if the BL20p G3 has a 4Gb or fasterFibre Channel card
B. if the Brocade switch has an IP address assigned by DHCP
C. ifFibre Channel pass through is installed on the GbE2 switches
D. if Selective Storage Presentation (SSP) is enabled on the MSA1500cs
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which processor types are offered on the BL460c? (Select two)
A. AMDOpteron Processor
B. Dual-Core Intel EM64T processor
C. Intel Itanium 2 Madison processor
D. Intel Itanium 2 Montecito processor
E. Quad-Core Intel EM64T processor
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 You work with an enclosure equipped with ten fans and sixteen half-height servers. Two fans
failed.
In which slots must you insert the remaining fans to keep all sixteen servers working?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 2?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
C. Identify the possible solution for each possible root cause.
D. Determine and use the most appropriate tools for each situation.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer reports that an InfiniBand switch does not power on. What is a possible cause of this
problem?
A. Dynamic Power Saver is not activated on theInfiniBand switch.
B. A three-phase power system should be used withInfiniBand switches.
C. At least one server blade is not equipped with Host Channel Adapter (HCA) card.
D. The Onboard Administrator version firmware does not supportInfiniBand switches.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which item is required to power on and troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. Diagnostic Station and adapter
B. Server Blade Management Module
C. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
D. You cannot power on and troubleshoot a p-Class blade that has been removed from its
enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.19 You added an interconnect switch in an HP BladeSystem c-Class and the switch does not power
up. What should you check? (Select three.)
A. interconnect type and location
B. position of the mezzanine cards
C. position of the power supplies in the enclosure
D. status of the first full-height server blade in the enclosure
E. enclosure and switch status in the Onboard Administrator
F. whether interconnect bay has been activated for the bay the switch is in
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 In which situation are qualified rack options covered by the HP BladeSystem c-Class Care Pack
services?
A. when the options are installed in the same rack
B. when the rack is fully populated with p-Class blades
C. when the options are used only with blade equipment
D. when the options are purchased with the c7000 enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which utility allows you to easily install and provision one or many blade servers in an unattended,
automated fashion?
A. Virtual Install Disk
B. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: B

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NO.22 You need to update Integrated Lights-Outs (iLO) card firmware, but you do not have physical
access to the server.
How can you accomplish this task?
A. useiLO web interface
B. use System Software Manager
C. use Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
D. use Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) software
Answer: A

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NO.23 During which portion of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you carefully observe and record
the results of each step including any error messages or changes in functionality?
A. Step 1 - Collect data
B. Step 3 - Develop the action plan
C. Step 4 - Execute the action plan
D. Step 6 - Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.24 You are installing a new InifiniBand Mezzanine card into a customer's BL480c server blade. The
mezzanine card is installed into mezzanine slot 2.
Which interconnect location must the InifiniBand controller be installed into?
A. bays 3-4
B. bays 5-6
C. bays 7-8
D. Placement of the controller does not matter. The Onboard Administrator will properly map
theInifiniband mezzanine card to the installed Infiniband Interconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is the maximum number of DIMMs that can be installed into an HP Integrity BL860c Server
Blade?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 16
Answer: D

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NO.26 A customer wants to install five full-height blade servers into a c-Class enclosure that is running
N+N power supply redundancy mode.
How many power supplies are required to support this configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.27 Your customer wants a solution that allows them to remotely deploy operating systems without
having to interact directly with each server blade or hiring additional IT staff.
Which product should they install to accomplish this goal?
A. HP Version Control Agent
B. HP Rapid Deployment Pack
C. HP Remote Deployment Utility
D. HP Vulnerability and Patch Management
E. HP Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which management functionality is provided by the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. manages shared power and cooling for the enclosure
B. provides management Ethernet fabric for the enclosure
C. provides HP SIM (System Insight Manager) functionality for Blade servers
D. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
E. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
Answer: A,B

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NO.29 Your customer requires software that will help keep HP software and drivers installed on c-Class
blade servers up-to-date. They want a low-cost solution.
What should you recommend to this customer? (Select two)
A. HP Client Manager
B. HP Virtualization Software
C. Version Control Agent (VCA)
D. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
E. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack (VPM)
Answer: C,D

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NO.30 You are performing maintenance at a customer's site and they are booting an HP BladeSystem p-
Class server from a storage area network (SAN). You must configure the server with a virtual boot
device that enables the server to fetch boot-loading instructions from the SAN.
How is the virtual boot device presented to the host server?
A. as a Logical Unit Number (LUN) on the disk array
B. as a Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) NIC
C. as aFibre channel Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on the target server
D. as a Deployment Server database attached to the target server
Answer: A

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