2014年1月30日星期四

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Exam Code: HH0-330
Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise)
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Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is user selected.
B.The Command Device is system selected.
C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on
the UNIX/PC host.
D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to
the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.
B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other
applications.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that
are executed by the storage system.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that
are executed by the CCI software.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.
Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)
A.3390-3 LUN
B.LUSE LUN
C.OPEN-V LUN
D.OPEN-3 LUN
E.Virtual LVI/LUN
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device.
Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows
server?
A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20
B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20
C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20
D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20
Answer: A

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NO.5 The CCI instance has failed to start.
What is the most likely cause?
A.The Command Device is labeled.
B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.
C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.
D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)
A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.
B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write
commands that are executed by the CCI software.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write
commands that are executed by the storage system.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?
A./usr/bin/
B./usr/sbin
C./HORCM/
D./HORCM/usr/bin/
Answer: D

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NO.8 On a Windows system, how do you make sure that the environment parameter is set correctly to use
CCI for ShadowImage operations instead of TrueCopy operations?
A.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is not set.
C.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.
What is the result of the pairresync operation?
A.The pairresync completes immediately.
B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.
C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.
D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol
Answer: B

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NO.10 On a Windows system, how do you verify that the environment parameter is correctly set to use CCI
for TrueCopy operations instead of ShadowImage operations?
A.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is not set.
C.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HH0-250
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Implementer File Services-NAS)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A large movie production studio approaches an HDS sales team with a request to build a large
rendering farm. Their environment consists of UNIX and Linux operating systems. They want the servers
to access a Hitachi NAS Platform. Which file service would have to be enabled to allow access?
A. SSH
B. WebDAV
C. HTTP
D. NFS
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two benefits of the Clustered Name Space (CNS) feature of the Hitachi NAS Platform file
system? (Choose two.)
A. With CNS, network access to configured storage resources can be made through a single CIFS share
or NFS export.
B. CNS provides the mechanism for automatic load balancing.
C. CNS virtualizes network resources, allowing multiple nodes in a cluster to appear as a single node.
D. CNS virtualizes storage resources, allowing multiple file systems to appear as a single large file
system.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You are implementing a Hitachi NAS Platform into a customer environment. The customer will
implement anti-virus scanning on their system. Which protocol is supported by the Hitachi NAS Platform
for communication with the anti-virus servers?
A. Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
B. Network File System (NFS)
C. NAS Security Protocol (NSP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Answer: A

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NO.4 During a data migration, which three steps should be performed to validate the consistency of the
source and destination shares/exports? (Choose three.)
A. Compare the available capacity on source and destination.
B. Compare the share/export permissions on source and destination.
C. Compare the MD5/SHA256 checksum of the directory tree.
D. Compare the number of files on source and destination.
E. Compare the number of directories on source and destination.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Your customer has files that they would like to reverse migrate using Data Migrator. Which two valid
arguments can be used to specify the files? (Choose two.)
A. inode
B. pattern
C. acl
D. age
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which two advanced networking features can be used to optimize network throughput within the Hitachi
NAS Platform.? (Choose two.)
A. jumbo frames
B. Cisco Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)
C. 802.3ad Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
D. 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 According to Hitachi Data Systems best practices, how should storage pools, file systems and virtual
servers be configured?
A. The file system auto-expansion feature should be used to expand a file system across different storage
pools.
B. Storage pools should be created with system drives of identical performance and size.
C. File systems should be shared across multiple virtual servers for redundancy.
D. File systems from the same storage pool should be assigned to virtual servers on different Hitachi NAS
Platform nodes.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer wants to use Hitachi NAS Platform snapshots and asks you about file system space usage.
Which two statements describe the file system space utilization when using snapshots? (Choose two.)
A. The snapshot technique uses Copy-on-Write (CoW).
B. The snapshot delta data is in the same file system area as the live data.
C. The delta data is first copied to a differential volume before data is modified in the live file system.
D. When live data is not modified, the snapshot does not consume any space.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What are two valid steps when upgrading the SMU software in a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. Mount the CD using the command "mount /dev/*.iso".
B. Mount the CD using the command "mount /media/cdrecorder".
C. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 9600 b/s, 8, 1, no parity,
no flow control settings.
D. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 115200 b/s, 8, 1, no
parity, no flow control settings.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 When performing a microcode upgrade, what information is stored in the cluster/server configuration
backup? (Choose three.)
A. network configuration
B. cluster node names
C. CIFS share names
D. Quorum Device (QD) configuration
E. NFS export names
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 You are upgrading from a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3080 to model 3100. Which two configuration
parameters might be affected? (Choose two.)
A. mount and share parameters
B. Fibre Channel fabric zoning
C. replication policies
D. LUN security in the secure storage domains
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which Fibre Channel (FC) speed settings are supported on the Hitachi NAS Platform host ports?
A. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 1 Gb is the default.
B. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 2 Gb is the default.
C. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 4 Gb is the default.
D. The FC host ports support 2 Gb, 4 Gb, or 8 Gb, where 8 Gb is the default.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement describes the Hitachi NAS Platform file system architecture?
A. The file system size may be reduced non-disruptively.
B. The file system is not subject to fragmentation.
C. The file system unifies directory structure and presents a single logical view.
D. The file system spans across multiple storage pools.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which three components of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 or 3090 Generation 1 (G1) node are hot
swappable? (Choose three.)
A. PSU
B. fans
C. battery pack
D. the hardware FPGA board
E. internal hard drive (HDD)
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Your customer wants to obtain the Management Information Base (MIB) to integrate a Hitachi NAS
Platform into their Event Management framework. What are two ways to obtain the MIB? (Choose two.)
A. Download the Enterprise MIB module from EVS.
B. Download the Enterprise MIB module from the Web Manager GUI.
C. Download the Enterprise MIB module from HiTrack.
D. Contact the Hitachi Data Systems Support Center for the latest Enterprise MIB.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Manager)
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NO.1 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.2 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses
their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still
decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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NO.8 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.9 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.12 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.14 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.20 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: GB0-183
Exam Name: H3C (Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 526 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 T. True
F. False
T

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NO.2 ISDN
A.
1
NT1
B.
2
NT2
C. 1
TE1
D. 2
TE2
E.
TA
ABCDE

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NO.3 802.3
64byte
1518byte
802.3
64byte
A. 46byte
B. 46bit
C. 2408bit
D. 512bit
A

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NO.4 RIP
520
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
B

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NO.5 LAN
A.
B.
C.
D. FDDI
ABCD

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NO.6 A.
B. IP
C. A 255.255.0.0
D.
AB

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NO.7 TFTP
A. TCP 68
B. UDP 68
C. TCP 69
D. UDP 69
D

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NO.8 standby threshold 50 20
100M
80M
A.
B.
C.
D.
A

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NO.9 Quidway
vrp 3.4
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
B

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NO.10 4000~4999
A.
B.
C.
D.
MAC
D

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NO.11 DCC
IP
IPX
IP
IPX
T. True
F. False
T

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NO.12 Xerox
DEC
Intel
100Mb/s
DIX
DEC,Intel,Xerox
IEEE802.3
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.13 OSI
A.
B.
C.
D.
D

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NO.14 Bc
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.15 PPP
CHAP
A. MD5
B. DES
C. RSA
D. SHA
A

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NO.16 A.
B.
C.
B

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NO.17 Quidway AR
A. xmodem
B. ftp
C. tftp
D. HGMP
D

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NO.18 A.
B.
C.
D.
D

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NO.19 TCP
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.20 A. 0
B. 10
C. 30
D.
A

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NO.21 Quidway VRP
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
B

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NO.22 T. True
F. False
T

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NO.23 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ABCDE

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NO.24 A.
B.
C.
A

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NO.25 A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
BC

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NO.26 CE1
31
64K
30
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.27 A. IP
1
IP
B. IP
0
IP
C. IP
127
IP
D. IP
1
IP
C

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NO.28 IP
A.
IP
B.
IPv4
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
C.
32
8
D. IP
IP
0
ABC

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NO.29 25
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. Telnet
D. SMTP
D

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NO.30 STP
A. STP
IEEE 802.1D
B. STP
C.
STP
BPDU
STP
D. STP
UPS
ABCD

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Exam Code: FD0-510
Exam Name: Fujitsu (Interstage Certified Associate V9)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-106
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 232 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.3 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.4 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.5 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.8 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

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NO.10 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.11 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.13 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.14 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.15 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

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NO.16 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.18 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.19 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.21 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.22 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.23 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.24 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.25 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.26 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.27 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.28 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.29 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

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NO.30 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.1 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.2 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place.?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.5 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-114
Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Mgmt Foundation Bridge based on ISO/IEC 20000 )
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Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What defines Service Quality?
A. A series of activities that can be assessed in advance by a provider and customer
B. Achieving a 99.999% continuous level of availability
C. Meeting stated customer requirements and expectations
D. Providing a cost-effective service
Answer: C

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NO.2 What data is recorded when an incident is reported to the Service Desk?
A. the name of the person reporting the Incident
B. the name of the person handling the Problem
C. the name of the person who approves the Request for Change (RFC)
D. the names of persons who are authorized to implement Changes in the Configuration
ManagementDatabase (CMDB)
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is required to be in place for emergency changes?
A. Capacity plans
B. Controlled Acceptance Test environment
C. policies and procedures
D. Service Continuity Plans
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI
B. CobITTM
C. ITIL
D. MOF
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a best practice concerning information security risk assessment?
A. Information security risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain
objectivity.
B. Information security risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every incident.
C. Information security risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained
duringchanges.
D. Information security risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which aspect of the IT-Service Industry is considered to be one of the most important, but also one of
the most difficult?
A. constant quality
B. incorporating technological innovations
C. innovating the way services are provided
D. methodological order based on best practices
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company decides to apply the principle of continual improvement. Which action would result from this
decision.?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions
C. Review the Service Management System at least annual
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which process aims to prevent incidents resulting from changes to the IT infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the difference between a process owner and a process manager?
A. a process owner is responsible for the effectiveness of the process and a process manager is
responsiblefor the realization of the process
B. a process owner is a director and a process manager is a manager
C. a process owner must have a Manager's Certificate and a process manager must have a
Practitioner'scertificate
D. a process owner will work directly with business leadership and the process manager only works within
IT
Answer: A

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NO.10 Due to excessive workload, the Desktop Support group has been unable to meet their agreed service
levels. One of the major contributing factors is the time being spent in direct communication with users.
Which Process or Function can help to alleviate some of this workload?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk Service
D. Level Management
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SCNS-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense Exam)
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NO.1 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a
Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some
clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for
internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 / 4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 / 8
D. 169.254.0.0 / 0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic
in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.4 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and
you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts
combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.5 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to
zero,
what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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